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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 21.06.2025 02:33

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What was the most inappropriate thing your parent caught you doing as a teen? Was in the bedroom, I thought nobody else was home. My sister and I shared that bedroom but I knew she was gone. I didn’t know my dad was home though.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Why is Reddit blocked by the Indonesian government?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Does believing in God and Satan cause schizophrenia?

You'll usually find your answer there.